In a letter to the court, a doctor said that I have a "damaged sexual identity," which is not true and very offensive. It was not court ordered, nor was he a witness for the court, and the doctor did not have my consent to send such letter. 14 months later, the same doctor then addressed a woman in letter (again without obtaining consent) and said that I "treat females as objects." I find it to be very offensive, this doctor portraying me as someone I'm not and it is a complete contradiction to the letter he addressed to the court. This doctor also never obtained consent to treat me in general. Is this libel or is this libel per se?
Personal Injury Lawyer
Court communications are not subject to defamation lawsuits, and opinions are not defamation, only false statements of facts published to a 3rd party.
Licensed in PA & NJ. 29% Contingency Fee. Phone: 215-510-6755 www.InjuryLawyerPhiladelphia.com