In a letter to the court, a doctor said that I have a "damaged sexual identity," which is not true and very offensive. It was not court ordered, nor was he a witness for the court, and the doctor did not have my consent to send such letter. 14 months later, the same doctor then addressed a woman in letter (again without obtaining consent) and said that I "treat females as objects." I find it to be very offensive, this doctor portraying me as someone I'm not and it is a complete contradiction to the letter he addressed to the court. This doctor also never obtained consent to treat me in general. Is this libel or is this libel per se?