I recently learned that my landlord is in default of her mortgage and there has been a court order for the building to be in control of the bank and monthly rents are to be paid to a court appointed receiver. The bank plans to sell the building to cover the defaulted mortgage.
My problem is the court order took place in may 2009 and I did not sign my lease until August 2009, not knowing about the foreclosure. I am being told by the receiver that landlord was not supposed to sign new leases. Unfortunately for both of us, she did.
I need to know if my lease is valid at all. Ultimately, do I have any rights to be able to stay in my apartment to the end of my lease? Or is my lease invalid and I can move without having it be considered a "lease break?
