I got a divorce 6 years ago. I was granted the house and the children. The judge ordered me to get a quitclaim deed to get her name off the house. She refuses to sign it because her lawyer told her she is entitled to half the house. Is this true.
Additional information
This is how the judgement reads: Wife shall convey to Husband, by quitclaim deed, all her right, title, and interest in the former marital residence and husband shall hereafter be intitled to the exclusive possession, use and occupancy of the former marital residence.
Read your judgment of divorce very carefully with regard to the distribution of the marital residence.
If you were awarded "exclusive occupancy" of the marital residence, this would mean that you have the mere right to OCCUPY the house for a period of time, and at the termination of that period of time, the house would have to be sold and the net proceeds divided in a manner directed by the Judge. If this is what the judgment says, your ex-wife may indeed be entitled to half (or some other portion) of the value of the house.
On the other hand, if the Judge awarded you title, possession, or "equitable distribution" of the marital residence, (which seems to be the case if the Judge advised you to obtain a "quitclaim deed"), then your ex-wife does not have any interest in the house, and is not entitled to "half the house" as she states. If she refuses to sign the deed and other documents necessary to effect a transfer of the house, you can file a post-judgment motion asking the Court to compel her to sign the necessary documents, or to find her in contempt (fine her or sentence her to jail) if she does not comply, or to grant you limited power of attorney to sign the deed and transfer documents on her behalf to effect the transfer of title. In such a post-judgment application, you can also ask the Court to award you counsel fees (i.e. ask the Court to make her pay your attorney fees) incurred in connection with your post-judgment application.
Good luck.
