I sent a letter certified, resticted delivery signature required by the per it was addressed to and it was signed for by someone else. In the court of law does that count when the person didn't sign for it that it was addressed to as him receiving it?
Criminal Defense Attorney
The question is not clear on what you mean by "does it count." If you are asking whether this fact pattern constitutes good/valid service, it may depend on the purpose of the letter. For example, if the Rules permit service by certified mail BUT specifically require restricted delivery signed by the person being served, then it is not sufficient to effect service if signed by someone else. Some Rules do not required restricted delivery, while other Rules specifically require it. There could be other relevant factors, as well. For example, has the person acknolwdged receipt of the letter in any way, thereby confirming that he/she received it?
Divorce / Separation Lawyer
I agree with Attorney Strand. Depending on what the letter was for, would depend on if it counted as service or not. This is something I'd reccomend discussing in more detail with a local attorney who can tell you whether or not you would have to resend it. Generally, if it was sent certified, anyone can sign for it in the household and it would still be considered good service. However, there are a few situations where restricted delivery is required.
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