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Attorney answers (2)
Court will not orderher parents to pay your legal fees. Most you can hope for is that court will allow legal fees to be paid out of community property. Of course, you need to find a lawyer who is willing to do that deal.
The response given is not intended to create, nor does it create an ongoing duty to respond to questions. The response does not form an attorney-client relationship, nor is it intended to be anything other than the educated opinion of the author. It should not be relied upon as legal advice. The response given is based upon the limited facts provided by the person asking the question. To the extent additional or different facts exist, the response might possibly change. Attorney is licensed to practice law only in the State of California. Responses are based solely on California law unless stated otherwise.
The response given is not intended to create, nor does it create an ongoing duty to respond to questions. The response does not form an attorney-client relationship, nor is it intended to be anything other than the educated opinion of the author. It should not be relied upon as legal advice. The response given is based upon the limited facts provided by the person asking the question. To the extent additional or different facts exist, the response might possibly change. Attorney is licensed to practice law only in the State of California. Responses are based solely on California law unless stated otherwise.
The court would not have jurisdiction to order a non-party to the divorce proceedings (wife's parents) to pay your legal fees. Sorry.
Well, the short answer seems to be that, if they were fully compensated by the settlement, there shouldn't be any "restitution" ordered. The Criminal Courts I believe would not be bound by a civil settlement but, again, if they have been paid, and "restitution" would be a double recovery, the criminal courts would likely not order it. It would be unfair and not what "restitution" is designed to accomplish.
I hope this helps and wish you the best with this troubling situation.
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Since a great deal of information would need to be analyzed for a complete legal evaluation, this answer is offered for informational purposes only. It is not offered as, and does not constitute, legal advice
Well, the short answer seems to be that, if they were fully compensated by the settlement, there shouldn't be any "restitution" ordered. The Criminal Courts I believe would not be bound by a civil settlement but, again, if they have been paid, and "restitution" would be a double recovery, the criminal courts would likely not order it. It would be unfair and not what "restitution" is designed to accomplish.
I hope this helps and wish you the best with this troubling situation.
If you find my answer helpful, please click the ‘thumbs-up’ tab below. Thank you.
Since a great deal of information would need to be analyzed for a complete legal evaluation, this answer is offered for informational purposes only. It is not offered as, and does not constitute, legal advice
