In addition spouse is agreeing to pay balance of credit cards (including those in my name only) in full over the course of next 2 years. Given the state of economy and lenders not freely extending credit, it will be difficult to force spouse to take debts out of my name and place solely in his. I understand that if spouse does not pay spouse will be in comtempt of court; however, would bankruptcy absolve him from servicing this debt (that is in my name) even though stated in divorce decree or would my best recourse then to be to file bankruptcy myself?
