My boss originally had our paydays on the 5th and the 20th, with the pay periods ending on the 1st and the 15th. He has recently changed the process in which we are receiving the paychecks in which he is mailing them from a different city rather than using a local payroll office. It is currently the 7th and i have not received my check for the the past pay period. He says that the checks may not be delivered until the 10th. When i questioned this he said that the new paydays are on the 10th and the 25th without prior warning. Is any of this illegal?
I practice in California where the payday may be specified by the employer. The last day of the pay period and the pay day are not the same. If the pay period ends on the 15th, the payday may be as late as the 26th. For a pay period ending the last day of the month, the pay day may be as late as the 10th of the following month. Texas has a complicated and confusing Texas Payday Act which does not give clear guidance, but does allow the employer to specify paydays other than the 1st and 15th.
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