I'm a bit confused on the process for the sale of a home in probate. The probate court issued an order authorizing and directing the Personal Rep. to sell the house of the decedent on or after a date-certain, and to return the evidence of the sale to the court. The only bidder is ready to close, but now we're being told we must have a *different* court order to approve the sale, which is confusing and could delay closing by another month. The order held by the PR says to sell it, as if no other court permission is required. This confusion is holding up the sale.
Medicaid / Medicare Attorney
I would only add to Attoney Monks comment that the reason for the second order is to make sure the house is being sold for a fair price and give the heirs a chance to complain if it isn't.
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