Expert Advice When You Need It Most
Does a house have to spilt 50/50 when 1 spouse owned it before the marriageI owned the house before I met or married my wife. During the marriage the house was refinanced and her name was included on the mortage and is currently on it now. Does this asset get spilt 50/50?, or is it considered an assett that belongs to me? Attorney answers (1)
Reputation Level 14
Answered almost 2 years ago.
Marriage / Prenuptials Lawyer in Orlando, FL.
It depends on how much was refinanced. If you took the max and created a joint mortgage that was then paid on with marital income, it is likely marital asset in which she has some interest. Wheter it is 50% depends on more very specific facts.
This is for informational purposes only and is not legal advice upon which anyone should rely. Nor does it create any attorney client relationship. Stanton L. Cobb Board Certified Marital & Family Law Specialist Fellow - American Academy of Matrimonial Lawyers P.O. Box 149223 Orlando, FL 32814-9223 Tel. (321)972-4643 Fax (407)374-2499 email stancobb@flfamilylaw.com
Add comment
Related Questions2 Attorney answers: 
Asked by a user in Hanford, CA - about 1 year ago. 1 Attorney answers: 
Asked by a user in Westminster, CA - about 1 year ago. 1 Attorney answers: 
Asked by a user in Sugar Land, TX - over 1 year ago. Find Elder Law Lawyers |