No it does not. The payment of taxes doesn't void titles to property. If at some point you wanted to force the issue of selling this property (or via a settlement of that case, forcing a buy-out of the other two), in a partition case, the court will usually start with an equal split of the sale proceeds but then make adjustments based on relative financial contributions. There's were your payments may come into play. However, if you are the one occupying the property, your payments might be just viewed as rent, duly owed to the three of you, and thus result in no adjustment in an equal split.