if the deed is in husband's name only, and there was no crime committed by husband, only allegation of domestic violence, I filed a motion for repossession of premises in housing court, but judge denied, stating that jurisdiction lies in family court, I was deprived of property without a crime committed, allegation was dismissed 2 years later, I read of a case where a supreme court judge ordered a partition wall of the house so that both spouses shared the same house, isn't abuse of power just to protect women, and a man being deprived of property, isn't family court of limited jurisdiction, regarding matrimonial property? family court act mentions nothing about excluding someone from matrimonial property based on allegations of violence.
Family court judges can exclude someone of possession on allegation of domestic violence until there is a hearing on the charges and the exclusion can continue while the case is adjourned ending the hearing.
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