car #1 in front of me hit car #2 in front of them; then I hit car #1; police cited car #1; can I be held liable anyway?

The car (#1) in front of me apparently did not brake and continued to press the gas, even after it collided with the car in front of them. With the car in front of me having not braked at all, I was unable to stop in time. Police did not cite me and I am hoping the other car's insurance will pay. My son recently was in an accident so our rates will go up if we file another claim so soon. - Is this your question? Add additional information
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Answers (3)

Lars A. Lundeen

Lars A. Lundeen

Contributor Level 8
You will most likely be found responsible for striking car one. If your striking of car one caused additional damage to car 2, you will be responsible for that as well. Be sure to report this incident to your automobile liability insurance carrier

Legal Disclaimer:

Mr. Lundeen is licensed to practice law in Florida and Vermont. The response herein is not legal advice and does not create an attorney/client relationship. The response is in the form of legal education and is intended to provide general information about the matter within the question. Oftentimes the question does not include significant and important facts and timelines that, if known, could significantly change the reply and make it unsuitable. Mr. Lundeen strongly advises the questioner to confer with an attorney in your state in order to insure proper advice is received.
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Howard Robert Roitman

Howard Robert Roitman

Contributor Level 6
It is possible a claim will be made against you. Sadly, it is also possible you may lose that claim. Give it to your insurance company. Let them get you a lawyer and let him handle it.
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Michael Douglas Goforth

Michael Douglas Goforth

Contributor Level 6
Yes. If you struck car #1 and caused damages to either the drivers or vehicles #1 or #2 you may be found liable. For now let the insurance carriers sort this out.
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