"Judge may ask if Petitioner and Respondent agree to an Order of Protection without a finding of abuse"
I do not understand how a judge could grant a restraining order without finding abuse...on what basis can this happen. Aren't restraining orders based on evidence in the first place. If I understand the statement correctly, I guess any sane person would not agree to this when the judge mentions this at the beginning of the hearing is that right.
Family Law Attorney
The court is informing the parties of settlement options. Within some outer constraints, parties can agree to settle their case however they wish to do so with almost whatever terms they want. The Court is trying to make it more palatable for both sides to settle by providing the petitioner his or her protection order and avoiding for respondent the stigma of a finding that he or she actually committed the alleged form of violence. if a finding of abuse is nade, it nay be used in a civil lawsuit to prevent the other side from relitigatimg whether the violence occurred. www.taublawyers.com
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The parties can agree to mutual restraining orders. We'd need to know much more about the case facts to state whether its a good idea or not. You should hire legal counsel and share your facts confidentially. We offer free consultations and are local.
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