Example: Assuming the marital/non-marital status of all money and debts is easy to prove, and that everything described here happened shortly before the divorce: The husband received $100,000 in marital income and put it in his bank account. Then, from another bank account, which consisted of non-marital money, he paid $100,000 of marital debts. If he had paid from the marital $100,000, there would be no issue, because his non-marital money would not have been touched. Does it become a big problem because he paid from the wrong account? Or is it just a matter of offsetting one with the other?
Note that this is not nearly as complicated an issue as the example is. It's a very simple issue which happens to need detailed examples to clarify exactly what the issue is.
It actually is quite complicated. Under some circumstances the court may accept the innocent mistake/convenience argument, but other judges may not.
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My guess, and that's all it is because one never knows what a judge is going to do, is that with tracing(showing the monies in and out), the judge should see the error plainly enough. I hope, with this money riding on it, you'll be using an attorney.
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Divorce / Separation Lawyer
With respect to assets, it is the responsibility of the person claiming that an item or funds are non-marital to prove the source of the asset, i.e. to trace the asset to a source that makes it non-marital according to the language in the statute. With respect to debts, there is not a presumption that any debt incurred during the marriage is marital, so if one spouse enjoyed all of the benefit of the borrowed funds, that debt could be characterized by a court as non-marital and the sole liability of that spouse.