Can I violate terms of use if I have the company's permission to do so?

Attorney answers (2)

1. Licensed in WA

   

   Noah E. Weil

   Seattle Criminal Defense Attorney

   Contributor Level 12

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   Answered July 25, 2012 08:35. Impossible to answer this question without a LOT more facts. But as a general rule, if you are getting a waiver or permission to "break a rule" or "modify an agreement," it's good practice to get that permission in writing.

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2. Licensed in WA

   

   Howard BundyPro

   Kirkland Business Attorney

   Contributor Level 11

   

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   Answered July 26, 2012 09:44. Your question does not provide enough information for a full answer. Generally, any contract can be modified by a subsequent agreement--and in some cases by course of conduct. Any time the parties modify an existing contract, the modification should be in writing and signed by the party you want to enforce the modification against. It is very risky to rely upon verbal "permission" to do anything.

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