My father recently passed away and in the will it says " In event my wife , EXCUSE , predeceases me then I give and devise my residuary estate to equal share to my children . " What does this mean ? Does this mean the children only get something if the wife died before him ? Would this be a form of disinheriting a child ? Would it be worth the children time to contest it ? Also how is it determined how much the children would get anyway , if they were left out to collect nothing and everything was left to the wife ( not the mother of the children ) ?