3 Car Accidents in texas

There are two views and the outcome might be somewhere in between.

First, cars 2 and 1 as you identify them were going along without problems at all until you struck 2, setting forces in motion so that 2 hit car 1. But for the fact that you hit 2, it never would have hit 1 and so you are of course liable for the damages to 1.

However, 2 , the car you hit, may have its own problems in that it could have been violating rules of the road like failing to maintain proper following distance, failing to operate in control at all times (it should have hit the brakes to stop before hitting 1), and traveling too fast for conditions. So, the negligence of 2 cuts off your liability and 2 is liable to 1.

Re-read what I said in the first sentence of this answer.

I have spent more hours of my life than I care to remember in depositions going over all of the facts in a second-by-second, frame-by-frame review of cases like this where there are big damages in personal injury cases. But, if there are no injuries, thank your lucky stars, the insurance companies will just protect their own interests and that will be the end of it.

This answer is provided for informational purposes only. Actual legal advice can only be provided in an office consultation by an attorney licensed in your jurisdiction, with experience in the area of law in which your concern lies.