No photo
Asker
Posted about 2 years ago.

I'm not sure I can agree with you on this. I think if there were to be defined ways of looking at this, then an individual would have to look at case law. Based on previous cases and previous decisions by judges and or juries, one could attempt to determine a consensus on what is considered fear by a "reasonable person."

Even if left to common sense, one could argue that a reasonable person with reasonable fear would reasonably call the police. I believe I read somewhere that Chicago, IL police will not act toward a criminal charge unless there has been at least two police reports.

No photo
Asker
Posted about 2 years ago.

So, what I mean is that if the alleged victim did not call the police, then there was not a fear of the defendant. It's possible that an alleged victim is eccentric in desiring civil prosecution rather than criminal prosecution. Again, the reason I've developed this legal question is because the whole "reasonable person" standard does not make much sense to me. It could be that I grew up with a violent felon in the household, though.

No photo
Asker
Posted about 2 years ago.

It's unfortunate I have to ask about a law when ignorance is no excuse for the law.