If the reason they engage in this conduct is intentional, malicious, and for their own financial gains; and they (and their laweyrs) know the consequnces of such behaviors (dealth or permanent disability for the victim), isn't it the definition of the crime?
Asker
Posted almost 14 years ago.
If the reason they engage in this conduct is intentional, malicious, and for their own financial gains; and they (and their laweyrs) know the consequnces of such behaviors (dealth or permanent disability for the victim), isn't it the definition of the crime?